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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 24.06.2025 01:08

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

What are the differences between INFJ-T and INFJ A?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

From the Desk of AD Laird Veatch: Mizzou Athletics Embarks on New Era With ‘Will to Win’ - University of Missouri Athletics

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

From an axiology/value theory point of view, how can one say that a diverse society is better than a uniform one, especially given the negative effects of diversity (racism, sectarian conflict, problems arising from extreme cultural relativism)?

You'll usually find your answer there.